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On the Lack of Exclamatory Particles in John 20:28

Were Thomas’s words proclaiming Jesus as his Lord and then evoking the name of God in an ecstatic exclamation of surprise ? What does the grammar of the passage show us?
This post will seek to demonstrate that the grammar involved does not indicate a outburst of surprise, instead it is reasonable to read them as a deeply solemn and heartfelt confession. The claim of Francis Turretin that Thomas’ words could not be merely an expression of surprise due to the lack of the particle “oh” are also found to be inconclusive.
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