Just because Thomas spoke directly to Jesus when stating “my Lord and My God”, this may not mean he was calling Jesus Lord and God. This is the claim raised by some authors who use 1 Samuel 20:12 as a proof text of this contention. Does the grammar and the context of this passage show a valid counter-example to the trinitarian understanding of John 20:28?
This post will conclude that the grammar of the passage shows clear indications of an oath being given to David that invoked God’s name as confirmation. Ancient translations and some of the textual variant issues will be briefly touched on here also.