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John 20:28 and the “Original Aramaic”

The recent delivery of the book “Who is this Son of Man” edited by Larry W. Hurtado and Paul L. Owen has given me cause to further expand my studies in John 20:28. What got me thinking here was an instructive essay by Lukaszewski which examined the value of Aramaic reconstructions of the “son of man” phrase found in the Gospels.

This post will provide a few thoughts as to the applicability of Lukaszewski’s study when considering John 20:28.


1 Samuel 20:12 – Jonathan Said to David, Lord God of Israel

Just because Thomas spoke directly to Jesus when stating “my Lord and My God”, this may not mean he was calling Jesus Lord and God. This is the claim raised by some authors who use 1 Samuel 20:12 as a proof text of this contention. Does the grammar and the context of this passage show a valid counter-example to the trinitarian understanding of John 20:28?
This post will conclude that the grammar of the passage shows clear indications of an oath being given to David that invoked God’s name as confirmation. Ancient translations and some of the textual variant issues will be briefly touched on here also.

A review of the definite article in John 20:28

Is Jesus called “the God” in John 20:28? Does the presence of the word “the” in the Greek text indicate that he is God Almighty or does it merely serve some other purpose?

This post will briefly demonstrate that the word “the” is likely to be used due to the words being in direct address from Thomas to Jesus; therefore it would be ill-advised to dogmatically assert that it means “the God almighty”. Despite this, it will be further demonstrated that the Jewish confession of faith in their Lord and God found in Deuteronomy 6:4-5 likely forms the framework of Thomas’ words, thereby demonstrating Jesus’ divinity.


On the Lack of Exclamatory Particles in John 20:28

Were Thomas’s words proclaiming Jesus as his Lord and then evoking the name of God in an ecstatic exclamation of surprise ? What does the grammar of the passage show us?
This post will seek to demonstrate that the grammar involved does not indicate a outburst of surprise, instead it is reasonable to read them as a deeply solemn and heartfelt confession. The claim of Francis Turretin that Thomas’ words could not be merely an expression of surprise due to the lack of the particle “oh” are also found to be inconclusive.

On Redundant Quotative Frames and John 20:28

ἀπεκρίθη Θωμᾶς καὶ εἶπεν αὐτῷ· ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου.[1]

John 20:28: Thomas responded and said to Him “My Lord and my God” (author’s translation)

Could Thomas have been speaking to both Jesus and to God? This article focuses on John’s use of a grammatical device known as a redundant quotative frame / long sentence orientator in order to demonstrate that this claim has no grounding.